Which statement best describes the relationship between Macaulay duration and modified duration?

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Multiple Choice

Which statement best describes the relationship between Macaulay duration and modified duration?

Explanation:
The main idea is how to turn the time-weighted measure into a price-sensitivity measure. Macaulay duration is the weighted average time to receive the bond’s cash flows, expressed in years. To get a sensitivity to yields, you adjust it for compounding, giving modified duration by dividing Macaulay duration by (1 + yield per period). This modified duration is the actual first-order measure of how much the price is expected to change for a small change in yield (roughly the percentage price change, with the sign descending when yields rise). So the statement that modified duration equals Macaulay duration divided by (1 + yield) and that it approximates the percentage price change for small yield changes is the correct description. The other descriptions misstate the relationship or the roles of the two durations.

The main idea is how to turn the time-weighted measure into a price-sensitivity measure. Macaulay duration is the weighted average time to receive the bond’s cash flows, expressed in years. To get a sensitivity to yields, you adjust it for compounding, giving modified duration by dividing Macaulay duration by (1 + yield per period). This modified duration is the actual first-order measure of how much the price is expected to change for a small change in yield (roughly the percentage price change, with the sign descending when yields rise). So the statement that modified duration equals Macaulay duration divided by (1 + yield) and that it approximates the percentage price change for small yield changes is the correct description. The other descriptions misstate the relationship or the roles of the two durations.

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